Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 02:25
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Witness testifies about Sean Combs’ ‘hotel nights’: ‘I was repulsed’ - NPR
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Democrat announces run against Ernst after her 'We're all going to die' comments - ABC News
You'll usually find your answer there.